Forgive my ignorance, Rich — I’m often mystified by these very subtle arguments over the law — but hasn’t the question of whether President Trump’s adultery payoffs constitute campaign expenditures been settled authoritatively as a legal question by the fact that Michael Cohen has been convicted of a felony campaign-finance violation over these payments?
I am of course open to the argument that Cohen should not have been convicted of a crime on that count (and I think our campaign-finance laws are mostly a load of horsepucky) but he was convicted.
I don’t see how something can be a non-crime for Trump but a crime for Cohen.