A friend of mine points out that most/many states have felony murder rules which hold that even accidental homicides committed in the course of a felony make constitue first degree murder. Wouldn’t Rideau’s crimes qualify? If not, why? Did they not have those laws in Louisiana back then or now?

Again, I don’t wish Rideau dead. He seems like he’s about as redeemed a murderer as can be. I just reject the celebratory tone of the coverage which makes it sound like this guy was an innocent victim of racism. He brought some pretty big chips to the table.